Advanced Infantry Marine Course (AIMC) Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which term refers to holding a position to prevent enemy movement?
• Which option best describes the content of the Enemy Situation?
• Which item identifies the target location in a CFF?
• Enfilade fire is described as?
• Which term describes the line along which forces move during an advance?
• Which term identifies a 7.62mm sniper rifle?
• Which term is a medium machine gun?
• Which of the following is included in DCAPBTLS?
• Which term is the grenade launcher used for infantry support?
• KOCOA-W adds which factor to terrain assessment?
• Which term identifies a .50 cal sniper rifle?
• Which misfire procedure includes 'cradle 1 minute on safe' as part of its sequence?
• What term designates the zone between the forward edge and the main force where contact with the enemy is anticipated?
• Which unit is composed of multiple regiments and is typically commanded by a brigadier general?
• Which term denotes infantry inserted by air to seize and hold objectives?
• During M240B misfire procedures, what should you do if feeding and ejecting do not occur after pulling the bolt to the rear?
• Which term describes a boarding action in which the subject complies with the boarding party's direction?
• In fires in respect to the gun, what is the term for rotating the weapon left or right to cover different sectors?
• Which unit consists of multiple platoons and is commanded by a lieutenant colonel?
• Which unit is the smallest tactical element in infantry, typically consisting of 2-4 soldiers?
• Which term denotes the person or unit responsible for directing artillery fire and coordinating fire support?
• Which sequence correctly lists the major planning elements in OSMEAC?
• Which loading method for ambush formation is described as resembling a crow's foot?
• Which item is NOT a component of Commander's Intent?
• Which op term and graphic would cover maintenance and repair facilities and activities?
• Which squad-level formation forms a V shape to provide overlapping fields of fire?
• Which op term and graphic would govern infantry operations using mechanized assets?
• In M320 misfire procedures, how long should you hold downrange before attempting to fire again?
• What is the sustained rate of fire for the MK19 machine gun?
• An Ambush is best described as:
• Which of the following is NOT a type of contour line?
• Which fire team formation positions skirmishers on the right or left flank to extend reconnaissance and fire?
• Which unit contains multiple companies and is typically commanded by a lieutenant colonel?
• Which squad-level formation forms a triangular arrangement similar to a wedge?
• Which term describes providing protection or concealment for friendly forces?
• Which term describes a designated point used to control movement and coordinate actions during maneuver operations?
• Which of the following is a fundamental of offensive operations?
• What is the maximum effective range of MK153 (SMAW) against HEAA?
• Which term is used for Marines operating on rivers with specialized craft for assault operations?
• Which term denotes the preplanned, coordinated fires that protect a position from a threat as it develops?
• What is the minimum safe distance for the M224 mortar?
• In OSMEAC, which component provides the initial orientation to the operation?
• Which weapon is the standard infantry rifle used by many units for direct action at close to medium range?
• Which term refers to a heavier, crew-served automatic weapon used to provide sustained fire?
• Isolate in a security context means to:
• Which weapon system has a maximum range of 3725 meters?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the DRAWD acronym?
• Which of the following is a SALUTE element?
• Which of the following is NOT a component of the Friendly Situation (HAS)?
• Which element describes the method of engagement in a CFF?
• Which op term and graphic is used to manage the movement of personnel and cargo by land or air?
• Which unit is typically comprised of multiple sections and is commanded by a company-grade officer?
• How many transmissions are in a Call for Fire (CFF)?
• Which of the following is a Call for Fire element?
• Which op term and graphic would be associated with an amphibious armored vehicle designed to transport Marines from ship to shore?
• How many degrees are in a full compass rotation?
• Which term is a light machine gun?
• In M32 misfire procedures, what should you do after the third misfire attempt?
• Which term is associated with a long-range sniper rifle?
• Which term describes the line along which forces move during an assault?
• Which unit contains multiple battalions and is usually commanded by a colonel?
• To Secure an area during operations means to:
• Which op term and graphic would cover air defense using man-portable missiles?
• Which type of offensive operation follows a successful engagement to exploit success and move to the next objective?
• Which term describes an action to stop or impede enemy movement?
• Which term describes a prepared position from which an assault is launched?
• Which fire team formation is described as Echelon Right/Left?
• Which formation describes a three-man fire team arranged for maximum front coverage and mutual support?
• Diameter of MK153 rocket
• Which weapon has a tracer burnout distance of 900 meters?
• Under Enemy Situation contents, which item addresses the enemy's capabilities and limitations?
• Which unit directly contains multiple battalions?
• Which term corresponds to a Stinger anti-air missile?
• Which term refers to fixed-wing aircraft engaged in attack missions?
• Neutralize means to:
• Plunging fire is defined as?
• Which term serves as a reference point used to orient targeting for an operation?
• Which of the following is a fundamental of MOUT?
• Which unit is the largest element listed that typically contains multiple regiments?
• Economy of rounds refers to:
• What is the maximum distance of the M252 mortar (81s)?
• Under Enemy Situation contents, which item describes the enemy's composition, disposition, and strength?
• PICMDEEP is used to remember planning elements. Which option lists them correctly?
• Which finding is NOT part of DCAPBTLS?
• Which unit directly contains multiple regiments?
• Which term involves suppressing enemy capabilities by fire?
• Which type is reconnaissance in force?
• Which term refers to a Marine Expeditionary Force?
• Which statement best describes Coordinating Instructions?
• EMLCOA stands for which of the following?
• In mission planning, which term describes continuing movement and assuming the lead element may be engaged or degraded?
• Which fire team formation is a compact wedge used for mobility and close fire control at the fire team level?
• LOA stands for what in maneuver planning?
• Which term refers to breaching a defense or penetrating enemy lines?
• Record as target is used to:
• In MAAW misfire procedures, how many times is a misfire announced in each cycle?
• Which combination of elements constitutes the Concept of Operations?
• What is the maximum effective range of the M72 (LAW)?
• In OSMEAC, which component describes the current environment, including friendly and enemy forces?
• In movement planning, which term describes continuing movement and assuming threat presence until told otherwise?
• What is the term for a designated point where units link up during movement?
• Which fire-support term describes delivering fire on a target regardless of direction or method?
• In MAAW misfire procedures, when is the A-gunner instructed to inspect the rocket?
• In fires in respect to the gun, which term describes a firing mode in which the weapon remains fixed and can only be aimed by moving the mount?
• What does FCL stand for in fire support coordination?
• Which option describes the M240B condition code 'Not applicable'?
• What is the backblast angle of the M72?
• Which term represents a reconnaissance unit protected by light armor, designed to scout and report?
• Defilade refers to terrain that provides protection from observation and fire by using:
• What is the point range for the M27?
• Which statement correctly identifies the types of ambushes?
• What term describes the predetermined set of fires intended to protect troops and halt an enemy assault?
• What is the backblast angle for MK153 (SMAW)?
• In OSMEAC, which component concerns administration and logistics?
• Which term denotes units specialized in anti armor warfare using motorized vehicles?
• Which term is associated with riverine craft used for assault operations along inland waterways?
• GMOWFER is an acronym used in planning. Which list correctly names its elements?
• Which unit would be commanded by a brigadier general and include multiple regiments?
• Which term refers to a designated control point used to regulate movement and coordinate actions during a mission?
• In M240B misfire procedures, what is the first action after you announce a misfire?
• What does the 6-digit target location identify in a CFF?
• Which type of attack is used to delay and disrupt the enemy rather than to destroy immediately?
• In OSMEAC, which component covers command structure and signals?
• To Make an Area Safe by Protecting It from Threats describes which action?
• Which term identifies a .50 caliber sniper rifle?
• EMLCOA describes which concept?
• Which term describes firing from a protected position to maximize safety?
• Which is NOT a phase of Offensive Combat?
• Which term describes an action intended to mislead the enemy about the true objective?
• The 81mm mortar is categorized as which type?
• Which of the following is not part of PMARCHPAWS?
• What does OT Factor describe?
• Which op term and graphic would cover division/wing level operations planning and command?
• Which op term and graphic would most likely cover helicopter operations and air mobility?
• Movement to contact is a type of offensive operation that seeks to contact the enemy and develop the situation.
• Which squad-level formation is a straight-line arrangement used to maximize front coverage?
• Which term describes using firepower from a fixed position to cover another unit's maneuver?
• Which op term and graphic would primarily address air support and lift operations?
• Which condition triggers the hot barrel procedure for the M240B?
• An Ambush is an:
• At the squad level, which formation places soldiers in a single-file column for movement?
• A Strongpoint is best described as:
• Which items constitute the first transmission of a Call for Fire?
• Which element describes the method of fire and control in a CFF?
• Which formation is the Fire Team Echelon Right/Left used to provide flank protection?
• Which term refers to using fire support from a fixed position to secure maneuver by covering adjacent areas?
• Which weapon's misfire sequence includes 'rotate cylinder twice if not dented'?
• Which term denotes the zone where the front-line units first engage the enemy and from which operations are conducted?
• Which term is used to describe protecting a location or unit from enemy action?
• Which term represents the Marine Air-Ground Task Force, the principal combined arms organization of the Marine Corps?
• Which of the following is NOT a WUDATT sign?
• Which term describes the zone closest to the enemy where reconnaissance and initial contact occur?
• Which term denotes deployment of infantry by air for assault operations into enemy territory?
• In SMAW misfire procedures, what action is taken after holding the trigger and lever for 15 seconds?
• The danger close distance for CFF is?
• A Strongpoint is a:
• Which item is NOT listed as a combat medical pack content?
• Which term designates the enemy infantry unit?
• Diameter of the M136 rocket
• Which SAFESOC term refers to impediments that slow or stop movement?
• Which term describes a soldier specialized in using grenades and close-quarters combat?
• Which of the following is NOT a SALUTE element?
• ZMIST includes which of the following as a component?
• The 120's mortar cannon is categorized as which weight class?
• Which term serves as a reference point for targeting a location?
• Which op term and graphic would specifically cover infantry mechanized in AAV operations?
• Which unit is the next higher level above a platoon and includes multiple sections?
• Which is a Combat Patrol type?
• Which op term and graphic would likely involve armored reconnaissance with light protection and mobility?
• Which term refers to a unit designated as friendly for reconnaissance operations?
• Which squad-level formation has members aligned in a straight line for accountability and fire discipline?
• Endstate is defined as which of the following?
• Which category is Infantry (Friendly) listed under Air Defense Artillery?
• Which weapon is primarily used for sustained suppressive fire at short range and is typically mounted on a tripod?
• Which term refers to a motorized unit specialized in anti-armor operations?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three types of wire in the defense?
• Which term describes an area where no fires are to be used?
• Which action is not a standard step in the cycle of mortar operations?
• In Casevac 9-Line, which item indicates the priority of patients?
• PMARCHPAWS includes which of the following as a patient care component?
• LOBBS includes which of the following?
• Which term is a CFF target location?
• Which two areas are addressed by Admin and Logistics?
• In BAMCIS, which step immediately follows Arrange Recon?
• Which squad-level formation is an echelon to one side?
• Which op term and graphic would cover artillery planning and fire support coordination?
• In ADDRAC, which element corresponds to issuing the initial warning?
• Which area is among commonly missed areas on a patient (another valid example)?
• Which term refers to routing or directing fires to funnel enemy movement along a specific path?
• Which weapon has an Area range of 1830 meters?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of the offense?
• Which SAFESOC term relates to concealment and maintaining stealth through actions?
• In SMAW misfire procedures, what should you do immediately after rotating the rocket 180 degrees and reinserting it?
• Which unit would be commanded by a lieutenant colonel and contain multiple companies?
• Which weapon is the Heavy Antitank Missile Launcher (TOW)?
• Which squad-level formation describes a triangular arrangement that resembles a wedge?
• Which weight class does the 81mm mortar fall into?
• In the BAMCIS planning sequence, what is the first step?
• PERRLA stands for which description of the pupillary response?
• Which of the following is a Recon patrol type?
• Single strand C-wire is described as a:
• Which unit typically contains two or more fire teams and is led by a squad leader?
• The 81mm mortar falls under which category?
• Which of the following is a method of loading an ambush?
• Which sequence correctly represents the SAMK cycle of the infantryman?
• Which unit would be commanded by a captain and contain multiple platoons?
• Which term denotes a reference used to orient fires toward a target?
• Within Commander's Intent, which element expresses the overall aim of the operation?
• Which term describes directing fires to channel an enemy's movement along a designated route?
• Destroy means to:
• Which term refers to the light machine gun?
• What is the primary purpose of a single strand C-wire in a perimeter security setup?
• What is the maximum effective range of the M136 (AT4)?
• In OSMEAC, which component defines the operation's purpose and tasks to be accomplished?
• Which weapon has an Area range of 2212 meters?
• In the OSMEAC planning framework, which component deals with the action plan and execution sequence?
• Which term describes the action of shaping fires to restrict enemy movement to a specific route?
• Which SAFESOC term relates to concealment and ongoing movement?
• Which term means to interrupt or disrupt enemy operations and plans?
• What is the maximum distance for conventional rounds of the M224 mortar?
• Which section contains the Fire and Support Plan?
• Which weapon's misfire sequence includes the A-gunner inspecting the rocket?
• Which option is NOT a type of offensive operation?
• Which of the following is NOT part of HAS-A dimensions?
• In SMAW misfire procedures, what action is taken after the second misfire attempt?
• What is the maximum range of the M320?
• Which item is included in the second transmission for a CFF?
• Which term is associated with a Mk19 grenade launcher?
• Which term denotes rotary-wing aircraft designed to deliver close air support and attack roles?
• MORT stands for:
• How many mils are in a full compass rotation?
• Which op term and graphic governs the movement and operation of motor vehicles and convoys?
• What is the minimum distance for the M252 mortar (81s)?
• In ADDRAC, which element denotes the location to which a unit is assigned?
• What is the maximum range for the M4?
• Which action in DRAWD would be used to slow enemy movement and buy time?
• Breach means to:
• Which weapon is a light anti-armor system designed for short-range engagement?
• Which op term and graphic would best cover amphibious infantry mechanized operations with AAVs?
• Which weight class does the 60's mortar cannon belong to?
• Which is a CFF mission type?
• What does OT Direction describe?
• Which area is commonly missed when evaluating a patient?
• What does the Message to Observer (MTO) include?
• Which term refers to explosive devices placed on or underground that detonate by pressure or tripwire?
• In LAAW misfire procedures, before attempting a third shot, which safety check is performed?
• Which op term and graphic would cover standard mechanized infantry operations?
• Which weapon is commonly issued as the standard infantry rifle for close to mid-range engagements?
• Which element can be changed during Changes to CFF?
• What is the mission of the Rifle Squad in defense?
• Which fire team formation is described as an echelon to the right or left of the team?
• Enfilade fire is best described as firing:
• Which weapon among the following is primarily used for sustained suppressive fire and is typically mounted on a tripod?
• Which term refers to a Marine Expeditionary Unit?
• Which classification of ambush is planned in advance rather than chosen on the spur of the moment?
• Which type of attack is used to mislead the enemy regarding the real intent?
• In defense, interlocking fields of fire are used to:
• Which op term and graphic is most appropriate for medical support operations and casualty care?
• Which term would be associated with mobile air defense using shoulder-fired missiles?
• Armor penetration of the M72 exceeds how many inches of cold rolled steel?
• Which mortar system is the Heavy Mortar Cannon in the 120's family?
• Which term describes protecting a location or unit from enemy action?
• Which term would you select to illustrate a combined Marine force that integrates air, ground, and maneuver elements?
• Which op term and graphic would cover the logistics and provisioning of supplies?
• Under Mission contents, which two elements are defined?
• Which formation is explicitly described as Fire Team Skirmishers Right/Left?
• Which weapon has a maximum range of 2212 meters?
• Which missile launcher is the Medium Antitank Missile Launcher (Javelin)?
• What is the standard danger close distance for CFF?
• Which term is associated with coordinating indirect fire and fire support for ground troops?
• Which of the following is a method of mortars employment?
• What is the grazing fire range for the M240B?
• Which ambush formation is classified as Linear?
• Which term identifies a sniper rifle chambered for a 7.62mm round?
• Bypass means to:
• What is the mission of the Marine Corps Rifle Squad?
• Which term means delivering fires on a target through direct or indirect means?
• Which is a Recon Patrol type?
• HAS stands for the three components of the Friendly Situation. Which of the following is the correct trio?
• Needle D front landmarks are located at which intercostal space on the midclavicular line?
• Which op term and graphic would focus on battlefield communications networks?
• Which op term and graphic would oversee medical treatment facilities and casualty care procedures?
• What is the cyclic rate of fire for the M2 .50 Cal machine gun?
• Which term denotes an infantry unit belonging to the enemy?
• The ACE report includes which of the following components?
• What is the backblast angle for the M136 in the New configuration?
• Which statement best defines grazing fire?
• Which SAFESOC term describes a method of entering an area or approaching a position?
• Which term represents the furthest point of advance a unit may reach before requiring further clearance?
• Which SAFESOC term refers to the sector of fire available to a weapon system?
• What term denotes the designated starting point from which operations begin and movements are launched?
• Which item is included in ZMIST as the I component?
• Which of the following is NOT a METT-TC factor?
• Which squad-level formation places elements in an offset line to one side, creating an echelon?
• LZ marking refers to:
• Which weapon has grazing fire listed as N/A?
• Which item is included in the third transmission for a CFF?
• Which of the following is NOT a KOCOA-W consideration?
• Which unit typically contains two or more squads and is commanded by a platoon leader?